Type II Hypersensitivity — Q-Bank
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Unit 14 Question Bank

Type II · antibody against cell-surface antigen, transfusion reactions, HDN
16 MCQ4 Definitions5 Fill-in6 True/False3 Brief
The five tabs are the five sections of the real paper. Items tagged Past Paper 2019 or 2020 are the genuine questions, reproduced verbatim. Items tagged Slide come from the TMU lecture; items tagged Janeway's are built from the textbook to cover examinable ground. Nothing is invented. Janeway's 10e is a reflowed edition with no printed page numbers, so it is cited by numbered section (§1-14), not by page.
0 / 27 answered
1In the following diseases, which one has target cell damage?
A. Asthma
B. Haemolytic disease of the newborn
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: B
Type II is defined by antibody binding a specific target cell and destroying it. In asthma (type I) the mast cell degranulates but is not itself destroyed; in contact dermatitis (type IV) T cells damage tissue diffusely; in rheumatoid arthritis (type III) immune complexes deposit in synovium with no single target cell marked. ⚠️ The original paper misprints this question, labelling two options “B”; reproduced here with corrected lettering.Past Papers 2019 & 2020, Section III Q19 — verbatim, both years
2Which antibodies mediate type II hypersensitivity?
A. IgE only
B. IgA and IgD
C. IgG and IgM
D. IgE and IgG
Answer: C
IgG and IgM binding antigen already present on a cell surface. IgE mediates type I, where the antibody sits on a mast cell rather than on the target.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slide 8
3Which effector mechanisms destroy the target cell in type II hypersensitivity?
A. Mast cell degranulation and histamine release
B. Immune complex deposition and neutrophil infiltration
C. Macrophage activation by IFN-γ
D. Complement-mediated lysis, opsonised phagocytosis and ADCC
Answer: D
All three are normal antibody effector functions from Unit 3 working perfectly — the pathology lies entirely in the target, not in the machinery. The other options describe types I, III and IV.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slides 11, 14
4Which cell performs ADCC in type II hypersensitivity?
A. NK cell
B. Mast cell
C. Eosinophil
D. B cell
Answer: A
The NK cell, binding the IgG coating the target through FcγRIII (CD16). This is why True/False Q10 — NK cells, macrophages and complement act in type II — is true, while MCQ Q17 has the NK cell as the answer to “not involved in type I”.Past Papers 2019 & 2020, Section IV Q10 · TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slide 13
5Which is NOT a source of the cell-surface antigen in type II hypersensitivity?
A. Constitutive membrane components such as ABO and Rh antigens
B. Soluble antigen circulating in plasma
C. Modified self antigens altered by drugs or infection
D. Haptens adsorbed to the cell surface
Answer: B
Type II requires the antigen to be on a cell surface. Soluble antigen forming circulating complexes is type III — and that single difference is what separates the two.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slides 8–10
6An ABO-incompatible transfusion reaction is mediated by:
A. IgE on mast cells
B. T cells recognising donor HLA
C. IgM activating complement on donor red cells
D. Immune complexes depositing in the glomerulus
Answer: C
Anti-A and anti-B are natural IgM antibodies — present without prior transfusion, and IgM because they arise against carbohydrate (TI) antigens with no class switching. Being IgM they are outstanding complement activators, which is why the haemolysis is immediate and intravascular.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slide 17
7Which is a recognised feature of an acute transfusion reaction?
A. A wheal and flare at 30 minutes
B. Granuloma formation
C. Symmetrical small-joint deformity
D. Haemoglobin in the urine
Answer: D
Haemolysis releases free haemoglobin, which appears in the urine. Other features are fever, chills, nausea, intravascular clotting and lower back pain. The distractors belong to types I, IV and III.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slide 17
8Therapy for a transfusion reaction includes:
A. Terminating the transfusion and maintaining urine flow with diuretics
B. Immediate adrenaline and antihistamine
C. High-dose corticosteroids and plasmapheresis only
D. Intrauterine blood-exchange transfusion
Answer: A
Stop the cause, then protect the kidney from the free haemoglobin load by maintaining urine flow. Adrenaline and antihistamines treat type I anaphylaxis; intrauterine exchange transfusion is a treatment for HDN.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slide 17
9Haemolytic disease of the newborn is caused by:
A. Maternal IgM against fetal red cells crossing the placenta
B. Maternal IgG against fetal blood-group antigen crossing the placenta
C. Fetal antibody against maternal red cells
D. Immune complexes depositing in the fetal glomerulus
Answer: B
Only IgG crosses the placenta (Unit 3). Maternal IgM produced in the primary response cannot cross — which is precisely why the first baby is spared and the second is not.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slide 18
10Why is the first Rh⁺ baby of an Rh⁻ mother usually unaffected?
A. The mother produces no antibody at all during the first pregnancy
B. Fetal red cells never enter the maternal circulation
C. The mother's primary response produces IgM, which cannot cross the placenta
D. The placenta actively destroys maternal antibody
Answer: C
Sensitisation usually happens at delivery, when the baby is already out, and the primary response makes IgM — a 900 kD pentamer that cannot cross. But memory cells form, and it is those that endanger the next pregnancy.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slides 19–20
11How does Rhogam (anti-Rh antibody) prevent haemolytic disease of the newborn?
A. It neutralises maternal anti-Rh IgG already present
B. It blocks placental transfer of IgG
C. It suppresses fetal red cell production
D. It binds fetal Rh antigen and clears the cells before B-cell activation and memory-cell generation
Answer: D
The target is the mother's memory. Clearing fetal Rh⁺ cells before she can respond means no memory forms, so there is no secondary response and no IgG in the next pregnancy. It is the one place in the course where antibody is given to prevent an immune response rather than to provide one.Past Papers 2019 & 2020, Section IV Q7 · TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slide 22
12Within what period after the first delivery must Rhogam be given?
A. 72 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 2 weeks
D. 6 months
Answer: A
72 hours — it must act before sensitisation is established. Once memory cells have formed, clearing the fetal cells no longer helps.Past Papers 2019 & 2020, Section IV Q7
13Brain damage in haemolytic disease of the newborn occurs because:
A. Maternal antibody crosses the blood–brain barrier
B. Haemoglobin is converted to lipid-soluble bilirubin, which accumulates in the brain
C. Complement lyses neurons directly
D. Anaemia causes cerebral infarction
Answer: B
The bilirubin released from destroyed red cells is lipid-soluble and therefore able to enter brain tissue. This is why phototherapy — breaking down bilirubin — is a treatment, and why exchange transfusion is done primarily to remove bilirubin.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slide 22
14Which treatment for HDN is used primarily to remove bilirubin?
A. Intrauterine transfusion with Rh⁻ cells
B. Plasmapheresis
C. Blood-exchange transfusion
D. Rhogam administration
Answer: C
Blood-exchange transfusion removes bilirubin; intrauterine transfusion replaces fetal Rh⁺ cells with Rh⁻ ones; plasmapheresis discards maternal plasma containing anti-Rh antibody; Rhogam is prevention, not treatment.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slide 24
15Streptococcal antigens cross-reacting with cardiac valve tissue illustrate which source of type II antigen?
A. Constitutive membrane components
B. Haptens adsorbed to the cell surface
C. Modified self antigens
D. Common antigens shared by host cells with exogenous antigens
Answer: D
This is Unit 2's cross-reaction and molecular mimicry returning as a disease mechanism: antibody raised legitimately against a streptococcus binds a cardiac valve because the two share an epitope.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slide 9
16Drug-induced haemolytic anaemia illustrates which source of type II antigen?
A. Haptens adsorbed to the cell surface
B. Constitutive membrane components
C. Soluble circulating antigen
D. Intracellular viral protein
Answer: A
A drug too small to be immunogenic alone adsorbs to the red cell surface, making that cell a target — Unit 2's hapten principle, with the red cell membrane serving as carrier.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slide 10
1 Type II hypersensitivity — 3 marks+
Antibody-mediated cytotoxic or cytolytic hypersensitivity. IgG and IgM bind antigen present on a cell surface; complement, macrophages and NK cells then destroy the target — typically a blood cell or self tissue cell. Its defining feature is damage to a specific target cell.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slides 7–8
2 Mechanisms of type II damage — 3 marks+
Complement-mediated lysis — IgG/IgM activates the classical pathway and the MAC (C5b–C9) lyses the cell. ② Opsonised phagocytosis — via FcγR binding antibody and C3b binding complement receptors on macrophages and neutrophils. ③ ADCC — NK cells bind the coating IgG via FcγRIII (CD16) and kill the target.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slides 11, 14
3 Haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) — 3 marks+
Disease caused by Rh or ABO blood-group incompatibility between mother and fetus, developing when maternal IgG against fetal blood-group antigen crosses the placenta and destroys fetal red blood cells. Consequences: fetal anaemia, jaundice and bilirubin deposition, with brain damage from lipid-soluble bilirubin. Prevented by anti-Rh antibody (Rhogam) within 72 hours of the first delivery.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slides 18, 22
4 Sources of cell-surface antigen in type II — 3 marks+
Constitutive components of the cell membrane — ABO, Rh and HLA antigens. ② Common antigens shared by host cells with exogenous antigens — e.g. streptococcal cell wall and cardiac valve. ③ Modified self antigens — altered by chemicals, infections or drugs. ④ Antigens or haptens adsorbed to the cell surface.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slides 8–10
1Type II hypersensitivity is mediated by antibodies  ?  and  ?  against antigen located on the  ? .3 mark(s)
The antigen's location on a cell is what makes the damage target-specific — the basis of MCQ Q19.
TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slides 7–8
2The three mechanisms of target-cell destruction in type II are  ? ,  ?  and  ? .3 mark(s)
All three are ordinary antibody effector functions — the pathology is in the target, not the mechanism.
TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slide 14
3The effector components of type II hypersensitivity are  ? ,  ?  and  ? .3 mark(s)
This is True/False Q10, and it is true. Contrast type I, where the NK cell plays no part.
Past Papers 2019 & 2020, Section IV Q10
4Haemolytic disease of the newborn develops when maternal  ?  against fetal blood-group antigen crosses the  ?  and destroys fetal  ? .3 mark(s)
Only IgG crosses the placenta — the same mechanism that gives newborns passive immunity destroys their red cells here.
TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slide 18
5HDN is prevented by giving  ?  to the mother within  ?  hours of the first delivery, which prevents  ?  activation and  ?  generation.4 mark(s)
No memory means no secondary response, so no IgG in the next pregnancy.
Past Papers 2019 & 2020, Section IV Q7
1NK cells, macrophages and complements are involved in type II hypersensitivity.
TRUE
TRUE. All three effector routes: complement-mediated lysis, opsonised phagocytosis by macrophages, and ADCC by NK cells. Contrast MCQ Q17, where NK cells are the answer to “not involved in type I” — because ADCC needs IgG on a target cell, which type I does not have.Past Papers 2019 & 2020, Section IV Q10 — verbatim, both years
2Haemolytic disease of newborn caused by Rh antigen incompatibility can be prevented by administrating Anti-Rh antibody (Rhogam) in mother within 72 hours after the first delivery.
TRUE
TRUE. Rhogam binds fetal Rh antigen and clears those cells before the mother's immune system can respond, preventing B-cell activation and memory-cell generation. No memory, no secondary IgG response, no disease in the next pregnancy.Past Papers 2019 & 2020, Section IV Q7 — verbatim, both years
3Maternal IgM crosses the placenta and causes haemolytic disease of the newborn.
FALSE
False. IgM cannot cross the placenta — it is a 900 kD pentamer. That is exactly why the first Rh⁺ baby is spared: the mother's primary response is IgM. The disease requires the IgG of a secondary response.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slides 18–19
4In type II hypersensitivity the antigen is soluble and circulates in plasma.
FALSE
False. In type II the antigen is on a cell surface. Soluble circulating antigen forming immune complexes defines type III — and that difference is the whole distinction between the two.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slide 8
5ABO-incompatible transfusion reactions are mediated by IgG.
FALSE
False — by IgM. Anti-A and anti-B are natural antibodies against carbohydrate (TI) antigens, so no class switching occurs and they remain IgM. Being IgM they activate complement extremely efficiently, causing immediate intravascular haemolysis.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slide 17
6Bilirubin accumulating in the brain in HDN is lipid-soluble.
TRUE
True, and that is precisely why it causes brain damage — it can enter brain tissue. Phototherapy breaks it down, and exchange transfusion is performed primarily to remove it.TMU Type II Hypersensitivity deck (Yu Chunyan) Slide 22
1 Describe the mechanism of type II hypersensitivity. 6 marks

Components. Antibodies IgG and IgM; antigen present on the cell surface; effectors complement, macrophages and NK cells. Blood cells and self tissue cells are the targets.

Sources of the surface antigen. ① Constitutive membrane components (ABO, Rh, HLA). ② Common antigens shared with exogenous antigens (e.g. streptococcal cell wall and cardiac valve). ③ Modified self antigens (chemicals, infections, drugs). ④ Antigens or haptens adsorbed to the cell surface.

Three mechanisms of destruction.

MechanismHow
Complement-mediated lysisIgG/IgM activates the classical pathway; the MAC (C5b–C9) lyses the cell
Opsonised phagocytosisFcγR binds antibody and complement receptors bind C3b on macrophages and neutrophils
ADCCNK cells bind the coating IgG via FcγRIII (CD16) and kill the target

Worth stating: every one of these is a normal antibody effector function working correctly — the pathology lies entirely in the target.

Marking guide: 2 marks for components, 1 for antigen sources, 3 for the three mechanisms (1 each). Naming complement, macrophage and NK cell explicitly answers True/False Q10 at the same time.
2 Explain the mechanism of haemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility, and how it is prevented. 6 marks

Sensitisation. An Rh⁻ mother carries an Rh⁺ fetus. Fetal Rh⁺ red cells enter the mother — at delivery of the first baby, or through transfusion or abortion.

Primary response. The mother makes IgM, which cannot cross the placenta, so the first baby is unharmed. But memory cells are formed.

Secondary response. In a subsequent pregnancy with an Rh⁺ fetus, memory cells produce IgG at high titre. IgG crosses the placenta, binds fetal red cells and lyses them.

Consequences. Anaemia (mild to fatal); jaundice; brain damage, because haemoglobin is converted to lipid-soluble bilirubin which accumulates in the brain.

Prevention. Anti-Rh antibody (Rhogam) given to the mother within 72 hours of the first delivery. It binds Rh antigen on fetal red cells and clears them before the mother responds, thereby preventing B-cell activation and memory-cell generation.

Therapy. Intrauterine blood-exchange transfusion (replacing fetal Rh⁺ cells with Rh⁻); blood-exchange transfusion (to remove bilirubin); phototherapy (to break down bilirubin); plasmapheresis (to discard maternal anti-Rh antibody).

Marking guide: 2 marks for the sensitisation and primary/secondary sequence, 1 for the IgM/IgG placental-transfer point, 1 for consequences, 2 for prevention with the correct mechanism and the 72-hour window.
3 Compare type I and type II hypersensitivity. 6 marks
Type IType II
NameAnaphylactic / immediateCytotoxic / cytolytic
AntibodyIgEIgG and IgM
AntigenSoluble allergenOn a cell surface
Antibody locationOn the mast cell (FcεRI)On the target cell
Effector cellsMast cells, basophils, eosinophilsComplement, macrophages, NK cells
ComplementNot involved — IgE does not fixCentral
TimingMinutesHours
DiseasesAsthma, rhinitis, urticaria, anaphylaxisTransfusion reaction, HDN, haemolytic anaemia, hyperthyroidism

The single most useful contrast: in type I the antibody sits on the effector cell waiting for antigen; in type II it sits on the target cell marking it for destruction.

Marking guide: 0.75 per row. The antibody class and the antibody-location rows are the two that must be right.